Dan McClellan Overstates Response to Wes Huff’s Statement on Book of Enoch
January 22, 2025 5 Comments
Wes Huff made an absolute statement regarding the Book of Enoch (aka 1 Enoch), and Dan McClellan responded to it. But McClellan overstates his own case at various points in his response.
Below I will take snippets from McClellan’s vlog (further below) and respond.
First he quotes Wes Huff:
The Book of First Enoch is interesting…It tells us a lot about what Jews, particularly in the time around Jesus, thought about things like angels and demons. There’s this apocalyptic flavor to it…
Interrupting Huff, McClellan states:
Another way to put this would be to point out that the Book of First Enoch and the Enochic narratives and traditions directly influence the way the New Testament and early Christianity understood angels and demons, Satan, Heaven, Hell, and the eschaton.
How can McClellan speak in such absolutes here? Is he absolutely certain that 1 Enoch (and “Enochic narratives and traditions”) directly influenced New Testament (NT) writings? Could it not be that the NT had points of agreement with 1 Enoch specifically because these beliefs were commonly held in first century Jewish milieu?
1 Enoch is part of a body of works known as the Pseudepigrapha, meaning works that are falsely attributed. The Biblical Enoch of Genesis in the Pentateuch did not actually write 1 Enoch. And, for the record, some of the other pseudepigraphical works contain themes McClellan notes above.
McClellan jumps back to quoting Huff where he left off:
We do know that the Jews of Jesus’s time did not consider it Scripture.
Here’s where Huff makes a statement very difficult to prove. Given the nature of the Pseudepigrapha, I’d say he is correct, though. But McClellan criticizes it:
…There are no data that one can marshall to demonstrate that the Jews of Jesus’s time did not believe it was Scripture.
No data? Well, one could point to the Septuagint, aka LXX. The LXX is a Greek translation of the Jewish Tanakh (“Old Testament” to Christians) by Jews, begun ca. 250 BC and completed 132 BC. The LXX also includes works known as the Apocrypha in Protestant tradition. Incidentally, some of the Apocrypha contain themes McClellan notes above, such as angels, demons, and the eschaton.
It is commonly accepted that 1 Enoch is a composite work, with portions thought to be written in the pre-Maccabean period, perhaps even as early as 300–200 BC. Other portions were either simply written later or were later emendations of earlier written portions. So, we might ask: Why weren’t early portions of 1 Enoch included in the LXX, given that the latter was a very inclusive Jewish work (considering its inclusion of the Apocrypha)?
Now, we must admit this is pretty flimsy ‘evidence’ to support 1 Enoch as not inspired Scripture, but I only use it to show that McClellan’s absolute claim that there are “no data” is about as supportable as Huff’s claim above.
But McClellan is not yet finished:
The data that we do have that is suggestive of the status of First Enoch suggest that it was considered Scripture, at least by some folks. For instance, at Qumran [ED: where Dead Sea Scrolls were found] we find 11 copies of some version of the Book of First Enoch just in cave 4 alone. That is more copies than we have of the Minor Prophets, of Samuel, of Kings, of Jeremiah, of any of the other books apart from, the Pentateuch, Isaiah, and the Psalms, so it was incredibly important at Qumran. Jubilees is also incredibly important at Qumran; 14 copies of that were found there…
So there were 14 copies of the Apocryphal Book of Jubilees—which is in the LXX—at Qumran, but the LXX doesn’t include 1 Enoch?
But note that just because the sectarian and physically separatist Jewish community at Qumran might have considered 1 Enoch important in some sense does not mean that the Qumranians considered it Scripture.
Interestingly, even though there are fewer copies of the Minor Prophets than 1 Enoch, Qumran had a separate commentary on Habakkuk (known as Habakkuk Pesher, aka 1QpHab). Now, if there were extant a ‘1 Enoch Pesher’ like the Qumranian Habakkuk Pesher, McClellan would have a leg to stand on.
Continuing with McClellan:
And then we have in the NT the letter of Jude where First Enoch is directly cited and quoted as prophecy…
Let’s stop right there. First of all, while Jude 1:14 quotes from 1 Enoch, it is not “directly cited” as McClellan claims. So, is Jude roughly translating the Aramaic or is he roughly sourcing the Greek? It does not really matter, for the important thing is how Jude phrases it. We will look at the Greek.
The 6th century Greek manuscript known as Codex Panopolitanus includes portions of chapters 1–32 of I Enoch. In this manuscript the 3rd person singular present middle indicative ἔρχεται (erchetai), “(He) comes” is found in 1:9 (see this online interlinear here). The implied referent for the 3rd person singular is θεός (theos), “God” from 1:4. Yet, Jude records the verb with the explicit reference Κύριος (Kyrios), “Lord” instead. More specifically, Jude exchanges the present verb form for the aorist, and he places “Lord” in an emphatic position, after the verb: ἦλθεν Κύριος (ēlthen Kyrios), “the Lord comes”.
So, the author of Jude has changed “God” to “Lord” here for apparent Christological reasons. That is, in Jude’s epistle, the author refers to “God” (θεός), meaning the Father (1:1, 4, 21, 25), as distinct from “Lord” (Κύριος), meaning Jesus Christ (1:4, 17, 21, 25). This data indicates that “Lord” in 1:14 must refer to Jesus. Therefore, Jude has taken the 1 Enoch reference for the Jewish unitarian “God” and replaced it with “Lord” in order to change the referent to Jesus Christ and thereby support Trinitarianism. In doing so, Jude has changed the ‘prophecy’.
Jude had done a very similar thing in Jude 1:5, where the author records “Jesus” as leading the Exodus (see NLT, ESV, NET, Berean Study Bible, Douay-Rheims).
Now we will rewind a bit and start this section over again:
And then we have in the NT the letter of Jude where First Enoch is directly cited and quoted as prophecy. So, let’s take a look at this passage. Verse 13 is talking about the disobedient angels for whom the deepest darkness has been reserved forever. Verse 14: It was also about these that Enoch in the Seventh Generation from Adam prophesied, saying, “See the Lord is coming with ten thousands of his holy ones to execute judgment on all and to convict all the ungodly of all the deeds of ungodliness that they have committed in such an ungodly way, and of all the harsh things that ungodly sinners have spoken against him.” So not only is this directly quoting first Enoch—and Enoch is influential on the rest of Jude’s letter, by the way—there are other references to the Enochic tradition. This is explicitly described as prophecy; this is prophetic literature. What is Scripture if not prophetic literature?
As noted earlier, the ‘Enoch’ of 1 Enoch is not the Biblical Enoch. The pseudonymous writer(s) of 1 Enoch simply cast the Biblical Enoch into the text as part of the not-unusual manner of some first century Jewish writings. The ‘Enoch’ of 1 Enoch is simply echoing themes found in the recognized Jewish canon (Isaiah 40:10; 66:15; Zech 14:1–5; Dan 7:9–14, etc.). So, this is not a ‘prophecy’ in any real sense. Jude simply appropriates the words of ‘Enoch’ for his own rhetorical purposes.
[Editorial Addendum/Insertion: I am aware that my position on this is at variance with the large majority of Christian commentators and scholars. But, in my considered opinion as a self-studying layman, this appears to be the best way to account for Jude’s use of “Enoch…prophesied” here. Clearly, this isn’t the Enoch of the Pentateuch/Torah; so, in no way can this be considered as through the very mouth of that Enoch. With this in mind, how can a pseudonymous writer’s words be in any way considered authoritative? That is, why should we trust the words of one who presents himself as another? Moreover, how can we rightly extract merely one verse and call it both prophetic and authoritative, while scrapping the rest? One might argue that this ‘prophecy’ should be understood as akin to Caiaphas’ words as prophecy in John 11:51, but the issue of pseudonymity here yet remains. Also, Caiaphas’ words are recorded within a work already deemed authoritative. Taking in all the foregoing, I conclude that by indirectly and partially citing 1 Enoch 1:9, the essence of which was already in the recognized Jewish canon and cultural milieu, and then reframing it Christologically (adding “Lord” as subject nominative), Jude points to the pseudepigraphical work without deeming the verse or the book authoritative. In any event, I may refine my position as I ponder it further.]
Jude does a similar thing in Jude 1:9 in which he sources the pseudepigraphical Assumption of Moses (aka Testament of Moses).
None of this makes either Assumption of Moses or 1 Enoch inspired Scripture.
Then it’s back to Huff:
We do know that the Jews considered it a valuable piece of literature, like other valuable pieces of literature. But I think just because Jude quotes it doesn’t…then necessitate that it IS Scripture any more than when Paul quotes…Greco-Roman philosophers that he thinks those are Scripture.
Then it’s back to McClellan in response:
This is a bit misleading because Paul never says that any of those philosophers prophesied. But, what the author of the letter of Jude quotes from First Enoch is explicitly described as a prophecy—as something that the author was inspired to prophesy.
Dead horse beaten. We explained this above. Wes Huff is correct here.
Then, McClellan drones on ad nauseum.
The bottom line is that Wes Huff said something that in all fairness should have been tempered a bit and Dan McClellan capitalized on this to get on his soapbox. Everybody has to make a living, I suppose.
[See also: Who Led the Exodus? – A Text Critical Study in Jude 5.]

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